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PPL Exams

Pro Member Chief Captain
Jonathan (99jolegg) Chief Captain

A member on another Flight Sim site I visit asked for some practice questions for some of the PPL exams, just to get an idea of what to expect etc. I thought I may as well post them here as well for anybody that is interested, bearing in mind that the FAA syllabus (for Americans) will be slightly different, but fundamentally the same.

Air Law Exam:

The actual PPL paper has 40 questions, with a pass rate of 75% - in this case, 15 correct answers out of 20 for a Pass and to be completed in ½ hour (1 hour in the actual test).

1) According to the Chicago Convention, the authorities of a state have the right to search the aircraft of another state on landing or departure:

a) Without unreasonable delay
b) Only with the permission of the state of registry
c) Only with the permission of the Pilot in Command
d) Only with the permission of the aircraft operator

2) If a pilot’s license is ‘endorsed’ to state that it does not meet minimum international standards, the pilot’s license:

a) Is invalid in the state of registry
b) Is only valid if the holder is accompanied by another pilot
c) Must have attached or endorsed on it information regarding why the license does not satisfy international standards
d) May not be used for international air navigation under any circumstances

3) Under the Chicago Convention, which state is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft in flight complies with rules and regulations?

a) Only the state who territory is being over-flown
b) The contracting state
c) The ICAO governing state
d) None of the above

4) By ICAO definition, the person responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight is:

a) The Air Traffic Controller
b) The aircraft operator
c) The pilot operating the flight controls at any given moment
d) The pilot-in-command

5) In order for the altimeter to indicate altitude, the subscale setting should be:

a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QNE
d) QFF

6) Which aircraft are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light?

a) A glider or free balloon
b) A glider, free balloon or airship
c) A helicopter or free balloon
d) A microlight or airship

7) A line of red lights across the runway width indicate:

a) A displaced threshold
b) An exit
c) The ‘stop’ end of the runway
d) That the runway is unavailable for use

😎 A runway condition where the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture can be described as being:

a) Flooded
b) Damp
c) Contaminated
d) Cleaned

9) By ICAO recommendation, an alerting service is provided to:

a) Only an aircraft that has specifically requested it
b) All aircraft receiving an ATC service
c) Only to aircraft that have filed a flight plan
d) Only aircraft engaged in scheduled international air transport

10) A Control Area (CTA), where several routes merge in the vicinity of several airfields, is most likely to be:

a) An Advisory Route (ADR)
b) A Control Zone (CTR)
c) A Terminal Control Area (TMA)
d) A Terminal Manoeuvring Region (TMR)

11) An air traffic control service for arriving and departing controlled flights is an:

a) Approach Control Service
b) Area Control Service
c) Airspace Control Service
d) Airfield Control Service

12) A pilot who encounters a significant en-route meteorological hazard (SIGMET), such as severe mountain wave activity, is recommended to:

a) Complete a CAA SIGMET REP form within 7 days of the flight
b) Make a report to the area met. Office within 45 minutes of landing at the destination
c) Make a special air report
d) Make an open broadcast on 123.45MHz

13) A runway’s EDA is defined as:

a) TODA – Stopway
b) TORA + Stopway
c) Never being greater than TORA
d) TORA + Clearway

14) In class D airspace, to remain within VMC minima at between 3000ft AMSL and FL100, the minimum flight visibility required is:

a) 8km
b) 5nm
c) 5km
d) 8nm

15) When operating under an SVFR clearance, the responsibility for (i) remaining clear of ground obstructions and; (ii) separation from other SVFR or IFR traffic; rests with:

(i) (ii)
a) The aircraft commander Air Traffic Control
b) The aircraft commander The aircraft commander
c) Air Traffic Control Air Traffic Control
d) Responsibility for both is jointly shared by the aircraft commander and ATC

16) The first action and overriding priority of a pilot who observes another aircraft or surface vehicle in stress is to:

a) Make a PAN PAN call
b) Keep the craft in distress in sight
c) Note the location to be passed on in a post-flight report
d) Record the craft’s identification details

17) The Transition Level is defined as:

a) The altitude above which the altimeter can be set to the Standard Setting (1013)
b) The Flight Level below which the altimeter can be set to the Standard Setting (1013)
c) The layer between the transition altitude and the transition layer
d) The lowest available Flight Level above the Transition Altitude

1😎 You are PIC of a light aircraft, waiting to take off behind a heavy category aircraft from the same starting point on the runway. If the heavy aircraft is airborne at 14:02.30, for minimum wake turbulence separation, you should be airborne no sooner than:

a) 14:04.30
b) 14:05.30
c) 14:06.30
d) 14:03.30

19) In flight by night you see only the red navigation light of another aircraft flying approximately the same level as your aircraft, and on constant relative bearing of 060°:

a) There is no collision risk
b) There is a collision risk, you should avoid passing over, under or ahead of the other aircraft. Prepare to alter course to right to pass behind the other aircraft
c) You have right of way. Maintain course and speed but be prepared to take avoiding action
d) Increase speed to pass ahead of the other aircraft. As you are overtaking, you have the right of way

20) A part falls from a light aircraft, seriously injuring a person on the ground. This is known as:

a) A reportable accident
b) A serious incident
c) Pilot error
d) An Act of God

Meteorology Exam:

The actual PPL paper has 40 questions, with a pass rate of 75% - in this case, 15 correct
answers out of 20 for a Pass and to be completed in ½ hour (1 hour in the actual test).

1) At sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere which of the following conditions apply:

a) +15°F, 1013mb, lapse rate 1.98°C/1000ft until 20,000ft, then a constant -56.5°C
b) +25°C, 1013.25hPa, 1.98°C/1000ft until 26,090ft, then a constant -36.5°C
c) +15°C, 1013.25mb, 1.98°C/1000ft until 39,060ft, then a constant -65.5°
d) +15°C, 1013.25hPa, 1.98°C/1000ft until 36,090ft, then a constant -56.5°C

2) A parcel of air has a relative humidity of 85%. If this parcel of cold air is cooled, the relative humidity can be expected to:

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Move further away from saturation
d) Remain unchanged

3) If the wind at 2000ft altitude is 240/35, the most likely surface wind at an inland airfield is:

a) 270/20
b) 250/40
c) 220/40
d) 220/20

4) Given a surface temperature of +10°C and a dew point of +5°C, at what height might you expect cumulus clouds to form:

a) 3000ft
b) 4000ft
c) 2000ft
d) 1000ft

5) Which of the following is most likely to occur after the passge of a cold front?

a) A rise in pressure, a fall in temperature and dew point, wind veers
b) A rise in pressure, a fall in temperature and dew point, wind backs
c) A fall in pressure, a fall in temperature and a rise in dew point, wind veers
d) A fall in pressure, a fall in temperature and dew point, wind backs

6) If weather conditions are reported as ‘CAVOK’, which of the following could not be present:

a) 10km visibility, gales
b) 10nm visibility, freezing level below 1000ft
c) 10km visibility, overcast cloud at 5100ft
d) 20km visibility, FEW CB at 9000ft

7) The great majority of weather is found in the lowest level of the atmosphere, which is known as:

a) The ozonesphere
b) The tropopause
c) The troposphere
d) The stratosphere

😎 Within a depression two air masses meet so that a warm front is formed. In relation to a ‘typical’ warm front:

a) Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:150
b) Cold air will be replaced by warm air, the frontal slope will be around 1:150
c) Warm air will be replaced by cold air, the frontal slope will be around 1:50
d) Cold air will be replaced by warm air, the frontal slope will be around 1:50

9) An unstable air mass is forced to rise over a mountain range, which of the following is most likely?

a) Extensive stratus fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Scattered cirrus cloud
d) Cumuloform cloud

10) The cloud sequence that could be expected during the passage of a ‘typical’ warm front would be:

a) CI, AS, CB, CU
b) AS, NS, CI, CS, CB
c) CI, CS, AS, NS, ST
d) CB, AS

11) Heating of the atmosphere is mostly achieved via:

a) Evaporation of water in the atmosphere
b) Carbon Dioxide emissions
c) Heating of the earth’s surface by the sun’s radiation
d) Direct heating by the sun’s radiation

12) The wind along straight parallel isobars can be referred to as the (i) wind and the wind around curved parallel isobars can be referred to as the (ii) wind:
(i) (ii)
a) Geostrophic Gradient
b) Pressure Isobaric
c) Cyclonic Irrigonic
d) Coriolis Friction

13) A VOLMET broadcast is:

a) A recorded broadcast of the METAR for a specific airfield
b) A special ATC broadcast, to all aircraft on frequency, of a significant change in
weather conditions
c) A voluntary met. Report
d) A recorded broadcast of about 10 METARs for airfields mostly in a specific region

14) Polar maritime air reaching the UK is generally:

a) Cold, moist, stable
b) Cold, dry, unstable
c) Warm, moist, stable
d) Cold, moist, unstable

15) Which of the following thunderstorm scenarios is likely to present the greatest hazard to aircraft?

a) Dissipating thunderstorms
b) Nocturnal thunderstorms
c) Well-separated convective thunderstorms in clear air
d) Thunderstorms embedded in frontal stratus cloud

16) Fog that forms just ahead of a warm or occluded front is most likely to be:

a) Radiation Fog
b) Frontal Fog
c) Steaming Fog
d) Isobaric Fog

17) The force that causes air to start moving from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure is called:

a) The Geostrophic force
b) The Coriolis force
c) The Pressure Gradient force
d) The Isothermic force

1😎 Which of the following situations is most likely to lead to serious carburettor icing?

a) Summer, warm air mass, Descent power
b) Summer, warm air mass, Cruise power
c) Winter, cold air mass, Descent power
d) Winter, cold air mass, Cruise power

19) A METFORM 215 (Low Level Weather Chart) has a valid time of 0300 UTC. What will the valid time of the next METFORM to be issued and for how long is it valid?

a) 0300 UTC the next day, 24 hours
b) 0600 UTC, 3 hours
c) 0900 UTC, 6 hours
d) 1100 UTC, 8 hours

20) At what stage of its development does precipitation start to fall from a thunderstorm and vertical currents are at their most intense?

a) The cumulus stage
b) The mature stage
c) The dissipating stage
d) The cell stage

5 Responses

Pro Member Captain
Sam (SamIntel) Captain

Thanks for showing us those.
Geeze, that is fairly different form the US one. I gave the first 20 questions a shot, I answered them using what I thought would be the best answer for in the US, hoping that it would be the same in the UK:

1c
2d
3a
4d
5 ummm? b
6b
7c
8b
9c
10c
11a
12c
13 geeze, I have no idea, umm, b
14b
15d
16a
17a
18b
19c
20a

Do you have answers?

Pro Member Chief Captain
Jonathan (99jolegg) Chief Captain

SamIntel wrote:

Thanks for showing us those.
Geeze, that is fairly different form the US one. I gave the first 20 questions a shot, I answered them using what I thought would be the best answer for in the US, hoping that it would be the same in the UK:

1c
2d
3a
4d
5 ummm? b
6b
7c
8b
9c
10c
11a
12c
13 geeze, I have no idea, umm, b
14b
15d
16a
17a
18b
19c
20a

Do you have answers?

8/20

1) A - The Pilot-In-Command has control over most things, except when it comes to Government Authorities, so in the UK, they don't need permission.

2) C - It is only valid with prior permission

3) B - Each contracting state agrees to keep its rules uniform with other states

4) D - Correct

5) A - QFE measures height above a specific point, i.e. an airfield - similar to AGL. QNH measures altitude, above mean sea level (AMSL)

6) A - Airships need a white light at the front, covering 110 degrees.

7) C - Correct

😎 B - Correct

9) B - I guessed that it was all aircraft that filed a flight plan when I did it, but any aircraft receiving an ATC service (as far as possible) has the right to an alerting service from the RCC. Maybe its different in the US.

10) C - Correct

11) A - Correct

12) C - Correct

13) B - Well done if that was a complete guess.

14) B - VMC minima are measured in km's here

15) A - The Land Clear rule still applies to the PIC, but they are absolved from the 1000 ft rule. ATC will ensure separation between SVFR traffic. The PIC still controls ground clearence and needs permission before entering a ATZ.

16) B - Pretty close, making a PAN PAN call is the second thing you do in the UK - I don't know if its different in the US.

17) D - You've fallen into their trap. It is true that you set your altimeter to 1013 (29.92 for you), but they've mentioned altitude - altitude is not used above Transition Altitude, because its QNH. The 3 altimeter settings are QFE, QNH and Standard Setting, so height / altitude can't be in the question - again, it might be different in the US.

1😎 A - Wake Turbulence minima is 2 minutes for an aircraft taking off from the same point, or 3 minutes if the aircraft is taking off from an intermediate point.

19) B - The scenario illustrates an aircraft flying from right to left across your windshield in front of you. In the UK, aircraft on the right, have right of way, so the aircraft on the left takes avoiding action.

20) A - Correct. Who chooses "An act of God" I don't know...

Pro Member Captain
Sam (SamIntel) Captain

Well geeze, I sure did lousy, but my excuse is not knows any UK air regulations. 😂 mm

For 19, I put, c) You have right of way. Maintain course and speed but be prepared to take avoiding action.

What letter was the correct answer supposed to be?

Pro Member Chief Captain
Jonathan (99jolegg) Chief Captain

B - You don't have right of way. "On the right, in the right". If you look at the situation from a bird's eye point of view, the other aircraft is on the right, so has right of way so should maintain its current course and speed.

😉

Pro Member Captain
Sam (SamIntel) Captain

99jolegg wrote:

B - You don't have right of way. "On the right, in the right". If you look at the situation from a bird's eye point of view, the other aircraft is on the right, so has right of way so should maintain its current course and speed.

😉

Ahhh, ok, I got confused about the aircraft's postion.

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